CAE Exam Help: READING AND USE OF ENGLISH

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CAE Reading and Use of English 

Which part should you start with?

While most candidates don’t worry too much about this question, it can be worthwhile thinking about the order in which you want to tackle the eight different tasks in the exam.

Use of English before Reading

One of the most popular plans recommended by  teachers. Based on the idea that we are looking at two tests in one – Reading AND Use of English. Most candidates struggle with the UoE and feel more confident about the Reading. Therefore, they try to do the harder part at the start when they are still mentally fresh.

The sequence looks like this: 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6, 7, 8

Parts 2, 3 and 4 come first as they make up the Use of English section followed by the rest (Reading). It is a good way of tackling your weakness first and then cruise through the rest without having to worry.

Hunt for marks

Another popular way of looking at the exam is to follow the tasks that have the highest potential for good marks.

Some tasks that earn you 2 marks for a correct answer (4, 5, 6 and 7) while other answers are worth just 1 mark (1, 2, 3 and 8). It can be beneficial to try and do these higher-mark tasks first and leave the rest for later when you start to get tired.

This might be the sequence to follow: 4, 5, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 8

Maximise your mark-earning potential by doing the more valuable tasks first and, from there, move on to the tasks where you have to work harder for higher marks.

Summary

Choosing the right sequence for Reading and Use of English can be important if you know that you struggle with certain tasks or if you might get into time trouble towards the end of the test. Take some time during your preparation and think about a sequence that works best for you and your needs. You can focus on the task type, the potential number of marks or anything else that you think could help you maximise your final score.

Part 1 – multiple choice cloze (a text with gaps)

You read a short text with eight gaps. For each gap, there are four possible words to choose from (A-D). This part tests your vocabulary skills, or more specifically your knowledge of idioms, collocations, fixed phrases, etc.

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About Part 2 - Open Cloze

In Part 2, you read a short text with eight gaps, but this time, there are no options to choose from. Instead, you need to analyse the gaps and decide by yourself what is missing in each gap. The focus shifts from vocabulary, as in Part 1, towards grammar and you need to demonstrate your knowledge of the control of different grammatical structures.

Pronouns

Pronouns will often be gapped. In particular look out for reflexive pronouns such as 'ourselves', 'yourself' etc. and relative pronouns - 'who', 'where', 'when' etc. 

Articles and quantifiers

Articles and quantifiers like 'much', 'more', 'some', 'many', 'any', etc. will sometimes be required. 

Modal verbs

Modal verbs, like 'will', 'would', 'must', 'can' etc and the auxiliary verbs 'be', 'do', and 'have' are often tested

Conjunctions

Conjunctions like 'although', 'yet', 'still' or 'because' will sometimes be gapped.

Prepositions

Prepositions, especially those in set expressions like 'on the contrary' or 'in the meantime' will sometimes be gapped.

Dos and don'ts

Make sure your handwriting is clear. Look at the text before and after the gap. Don't leave the answer sheet blank for any question. If you don't know the correct answer you should always make a guess.

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About Part 3 Word Formation

Another short text with eight gaps. Next to each gap, you find a word which you have to transform in order to make it fit the grammatical context. Knowing your prefixes and suffixes is key to success here.

Exam tips

 As always, read the complete text first to get a global understanding of the content.

Examine the sentence structure to identify the part of speech required, such as a noun, verb, adjective or adverb.

Use your understanding of the context to decide if the missing word is positive or negative.

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About Part 4 Key Word Transformations

Part 4 is one of the trickiest ones in Reading and Use of English as it covers such a wide range of grammar that many candidates struggle, especially under time pressure.

You are presented with six pairs of sentences. The first sentence of each pair is the lead-in sentence while the second one contains a gap. You need to fill in the gap with 3-6 words, but there is one ‘key word’ given to you that you have to include unchanged.

Exam tips

Be sure to follow the instructions: use the key word given, don’t change the form of this word and use between 3 and 6 words - no more. Remember that contractions count as two words.

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Part 5 – Multiple choice

In this first true reading task, you have to analyse a text and answer six questions, each of which comes with four possible answers (A-D). This task tests a range of reading skills and different levels of understanding, for example, gist, attitude and opinion, tone, detail, purpose, etc.

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Part 6 – Cross-text multiple matching

In Part 6, you read four shorter texts and answer four questions which are designed so you have to read across the different texts. You are tested on your understanding of opinions and attitudes and your ability to compare and contrast these opinions.

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Part 7 – Gapped text

Another longer text from which six whole paragraphs have been removed. You have to choose the matching paragraphs from seven possible options, which means that one of the paragraphs doesn’t have to be used.

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Part 8 – Multiple matching

In the last part of Reading and Use of English, you get to read one longer text or several shorter texts plus ten multiple-matching questions. Candidates are required to match each question to one of the parts or short texts.

You have to show your ability to identify specific information, detail as well as opinion and attitude.

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Timing is key

Time management might be the most crucial aspect of  the C1 Advanced exam, so it is important to be aware of the timings and restrictions in each paper.

In Reading and Use of English, you have to complete eight different parts and transfer your answers onto a separate answer sheet that you get at the beginning of the test in only 90 minutes. If we assume that it takes the average person around five minutes to complete the answer sheet, we are left with 85 minutes for eight tasks or roughly 10 1/2 minutes per task.

Without good preparation or the right strategy you can get yourself into time trouble really quickly. 

Good luck !